Dumb question about soccer wagering...

Participants:

Posts: 5

Prospect

Joined: Jan, 2011

Posts: 392

Posted: Jun. 18, 2014 - 11:06 PM ET #1

Apologies if this has been asked recently.

If a line reads as follows: "Argentina -.5,-1" can someone explain to me how to read this?

My guess was that Argentina in this case would have to be winning by a goal at half and two or more at game's end to win this bet. Is this correct?

Thanks in advance.

Prospect

Joined: Mar, 2009

Posts: 149

Posted: Jun. 18, 2014 - 11:30 PM ET #2

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asian_handicap

Prospect

Joined: Sep, 2010

Posts: 128

Posted: Jun. 18, 2014 - 11:31 PM ET #3

U are correct. Argentina would either win by more than 0.5 goal or 1 goal depending on what line u take.

Banned

Joined: Dec, 2009

Posts: 1526

Posted: Jun. 19, 2014 - 12:29 AM ET #4

Quote Originally Posted by ca7ifornia:

U are correct. Argentina would either win by more than 0.5 goal or 1 goal depending on what line u take.

Legend

Joined: Aug, 2009

Posts: 281280

Posted: Jun. 19, 2014 - 12:31 AM ET #5

Quote Originally Posted by ca7ifornia:

U are correct. Argentina would either win by more than 0.5 goal or 1 goal depending on what line u take.

Oh my

The Pastor of Disaster