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    All Forums | General Discussion

    Who pays the juice?

    «First Previous 123 ... 678 Next Last»
    dl36
    Ed-Collins
    cmo1037
    scalabrine
    Spitfire15
    ...
    Participants:
    Search
    Views: 17792
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    «First Previous 123 ... 678 Next Last»
     
    dl36
    dl36
    Banned
    Participation Meter
    Joined: Jul, 2003
    Posts: 27850
    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 12:04 AM ET #151

    If you are the bookie, you are taking 5% on each side...

    thats what makes the juice 10%

    5% + 5% = 10%...

    not that hard....

    Once again...

    a bet for $110 to win $100

    is actually a $105 bet and the bookie takes $5 (5%) regardless if you win or lose...

    $105 win - $5 juice = $100 for a win
    $105 loss - $5 juice = $110 for a loss

    Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 

    I know there are those that cannot grasp this and will tyr to insult me and will insist that I dont know what Im talking about, but tell me how I am wrong on this...

    Is there really a better explanation?

    5% + 5% = 10% juice...
    Reply
    If you are the bookie, you are taking 5% on each side...

    thats what makes the juice 10%

    5% + 5% = 10%...

    not that hard....

    Once again...

    a bet for $110 to win $100

    is actually a $105 bet and the bookie takes $5 (5%) regardless if you win or lose...

    $105 win - $5 juice = $100 for a win
    $105 loss - $5 juice = $110 for a loss

    Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 

    I know there are those that cannot grasp this and will tyr to insult me and will insist that I dont know what Im talking about, but tell me how I am wrong on this...

    Is there really a better explanation?

    5% + 5% = 10% juice...
     
    Ed-Collins
    Ed-Collins
    Veteran
    Participation Meter
    Joined: Jan, 2006
    Posts: 1634
    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 5:25 AM ET #152

    Quote Originally Posted by dl36:


    ... Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 
    ... Is there really a better explanation?
    ... 5% + 5% = 10% juice...


    You're making this harder than it is supposed to be and yes, there is a better explanation.  I've already explained it several times.  But people refuse to listen.  The believe what they want to believe.

    -- begin --

    Bob Stupak, in Gambling Times magazine, 1983:

    There are two inter-related concepts about casino profits that most players, and even many longtime casino executives, don't really understand.  First, players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.  Put another way, you might say that the house makes money not on customers' losing bets but on their winning bets because the house pays slightly less than the true odds on those winning bets.

    If a fellow comes in and makes one bet for $1,000 on the craps table and loses it, he pays nothing for it.  But if he wins the bet, he should get approximately $1,028 for his $1,000.  Then he would be getting true odds.  Instead, he wins only $1,000.  So by winning the bet, he pays a $28 vig.  By losing, he doesn't.  Customers are often a little flabbergasted when I tell them, "I only make money when you win, not when you lose."  That may be hard to believe, but nevertheless it's true.

    The second thing people don't realize is that a casino does not make its profits by winning money.  For example, a fellow came into Vegas Word with $28,000 a few Saturdays ago, and lost it in about 10 minutes.  Now, we didn't earn that money.  We just won it.  We were gambling and we got lucky.  But I can't survive on won money.  I can only survive on earned money.  That guy's $28,000 is just in escrow.  Sooner or later somebody is going to come in and win it back.

    Everyday some people win and some people lose.  One day per week or month there might be more winning bets than losing bets, but in the long run they even out.  The only thing the casino earns is the money it retains from winning bettors by paying them slightly less than true odds.

    -- end --


    If your bookie did not charge you juice, you would win $110 each time you risked $110.  But you only win $100, because he charges you $10 juice.  And as Bob describes above, that was earned money for your bookie.  He lost a $110 bet to you, but you turned around and gave him $10 of it back.  He earned $10 in vig! 

    And next week it might be your turn to lose a $110 bet to him.  If so, for the two week period, your bookie would have exactly $10 more than what he had before any of this started!  This extra $10 is not won money, but earned money for him.  It is earned money because he paid you at less than the true odds the week you won. 

    If you play roulette and put a dollar on #25 and it hits, you pay vig... because you should be getting back a total of $38 but you only get back a total of $36.  You just paid $2.00 in vig and you won.

    If you play pai-gow poker, you fork over a 5% commission each time you win a hand.

    Bob explained how you pay vig when you win at craps.

    It's not rocket science, gang.
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by dl36:


    ... Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 
    ... Is there really a better explanation?
    ... 5% + 5% = 10% juice...


    You're making this harder than it is supposed to be and yes, there is a better explanation.  I've already explained it several times.  But people refuse to listen.  The believe what they want to believe.

    -- begin --

    Bob Stupak, in Gambling Times magazine, 1983:

    There are two inter-related concepts about casino profits that most players, and even many longtime casino executives, don't really understand.  First, players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.  Put another way, you might say that the house makes money not on customers' losing bets but on their winning bets because the house pays slightly less than the true odds on those winning bets.

    If a fellow comes in and makes one bet for $1,000 on the craps table and loses it, he pays nothing for it.  But if he wins the bet, he should get approximately $1,028 for his $1,000.  Then he would be getting true odds.  Instead, he wins only $1,000.  So by winning the bet, he pays a $28 vig.  By losing, he doesn't.  Customers are often a little flabbergasted when I tell them, "I only make money when you win, not when you lose."  That may be hard to believe, but nevertheless it's true.

    The second thing people don't realize is that a casino does not make its profits by winning money.  For example, a fellow came into Vegas Word with $28,000 a few Saturdays ago, and lost it in about 10 minutes.  Now, we didn't earn that money.  We just won it.  We were gambling and we got lucky.  But I can't survive on won money.  I can only survive on earned money.  That guy's $28,000 is just in escrow.  Sooner or later somebody is going to come in and win it back.

    Everyday some people win and some people lose.  One day per week or month there might be more winning bets than losing bets, but in the long run they even out.  The only thing the casino earns is the money it retains from winning bettors by paying them slightly less than true odds.

    -- end --


    If your bookie did not charge you juice, you would win $110 each time you risked $110.  But you only win $100, because he charges you $10 juice.  And as Bob describes above, that was earned money for your bookie.  He lost a $110 bet to you, but you turned around and gave him $10 of it back.  He earned $10 in vig! 

    And next week it might be your turn to lose a $110 bet to him.  If so, for the two week period, your bookie would have exactly $10 more than what he had before any of this started!  This extra $10 is not won money, but earned money for him.  It is earned money because he paid you at less than the true odds the week you won. 

    If you play roulette and put a dollar on #25 and it hits, you pay vig... because you should be getting back a total of $38 but you only get back a total of $36.  You just paid $2.00 in vig and you won.

    If you play pai-gow poker, you fork over a 5% commission each time you win a hand.

    Bob explained how you pay vig when you win at craps.

    It's not rocket science, gang.
     
    dl36
    dl36
    Banned
    Participation Meter
    Joined: Jul, 2003
    Posts: 27850
    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 1:28 PM ET #153

    Quote Originally Posted by Ed-Collins:



    You're making this harder than it is supposed to be and yes, there is a better explanation.  I've already explained it several times.  But people refuse to listen.  The believe what they want to believe.

    -- begin --

    Bob Stupak, in Gambling Times magazine, 1983:

    There are two inter-related concepts about casino profits that most players, and even many longtime casino executives, don't really understand.  First, players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.  Put another way, you might say that the house makes money not on customers' losing bets but on their winning bets because the house pays slightly less than the true odds on those winning bets.

    If a fellow comes in and makes one bet for $1,000 on the craps table and loses it, he pays nothing for it.  But if he wins the bet, he should get approximately $1,028 for his $1,000.  Then he would be getting true odds.  Instead, he wins only $1,000.  So by winning the bet, he pays a $28 vig.  By losing, he doesn't.  Customers are often a little flabbergasted when I tell them, "I only make money when you win, not when you lose."  That may be hard to believe, but nevertheless it's true.

    The second thing people don't realize is that a casino does not make its profits by winning money.  For example, a fellow came into Vegas Word with $28,000 a few Saturdays ago, and lost it in about 10 minutes.  Now, we didn't earn that money.  We just won it.  We were gambling and we got lucky.  But I can't survive on won money.  I can only survive on earned money.  That guy's $28,000 is just in escrow.  Sooner or later somebody is going to come in and win it back.

    Everyday some people win and some people lose.  One day per week or month there might be more winning bets than losing bets, but in the long run they even out.  The only thing the casino earns is the money it retains from winning bettors by paying them slightly less than true odds.

    -- end --


    If your bookie did not charge you juice, you would win $110 each time you risked $110.  But you only win $100, because he charges you $10 juice.  And as Bob describes above, that was earned money for your bookie.  He lost a $110 bet to you, but you turned around and gave him $10 of it back.  He earned $10 in vig! 

    And next week it might be your turn to lose a $110 bet to him.  If so, for the two week period, your bookie would have exactly $10 more than what he had before any of this started!  This extra $10 is not won money, but earned money for him.  It is earned money because he paid you at less than the true odds the week you won. 

    If you play roulette and put a dollar on #25 and it hits, you pay vig... because you should be getting back a total of $38 but you only get back a total of $36.  You just paid $2.00 in vig and you won.

    If you play pai-gow poker, you fork over a 5% commission each time you win a hand.

    Bob explained how you pay vig when you win at craps.

    It's not rocket science, gang.


    so the correct answer is that the winner always pays the juice?
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by Ed-Collins:



    You're making this harder than it is supposed to be and yes, there is a better explanation.  I've already explained it several times.  But people refuse to listen.  The believe what they want to believe.

    -- begin --

    Bob Stupak, in Gambling Times magazine, 1983:

    There are two inter-related concepts about casino profits that most players, and even many longtime casino executives, don't really understand.  First, players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.  Put another way, you might say that the house makes money not on customers' losing bets but on their winning bets because the house pays slightly less than the true odds on those winning bets.

    If a fellow comes in and makes one bet for $1,000 on the craps table and loses it, he pays nothing for it.  But if he wins the bet, he should get approximately $1,028 for his $1,000.  Then he would be getting true odds.  Instead, he wins only $1,000.  So by winning the bet, he pays a $28 vig.  By losing, he doesn't.  Customers are often a little flabbergasted when I tell them, "I only make money when you win, not when you lose."  That may be hard to believe, but nevertheless it's true.

    The second thing people don't realize is that a casino does not make its profits by winning money.  For example, a fellow came into Vegas Word with $28,000 a few Saturdays ago, and lost it in about 10 minutes.  Now, we didn't earn that money.  We just won it.  We were gambling and we got lucky.  But I can't survive on won money.  I can only survive on earned money.  That guy's $28,000 is just in escrow.  Sooner or later somebody is going to come in and win it back.

    Everyday some people win and some people lose.  One day per week or month there might be more winning bets than losing bets, but in the long run they even out.  The only thing the casino earns is the money it retains from winning bettors by paying them slightly less than true odds.

    -- end --


    If your bookie did not charge you juice, you would win $110 each time you risked $110.  But you only win $100, because he charges you $10 juice.  And as Bob describes above, that was earned money for your bookie.  He lost a $110 bet to you, but you turned around and gave him $10 of it back.  He earned $10 in vig! 

    And next week it might be your turn to lose a $110 bet to him.  If so, for the two week period, your bookie would have exactly $10 more than what he had before any of this started!  This extra $10 is not won money, but earned money for him.  It is earned money because he paid you at less than the true odds the week you won. 

    If you play roulette and put a dollar on #25 and it hits, you pay vig... because you should be getting back a total of $38 but you only get back a total of $36.  You just paid $2.00 in vig and you won.

    If you play pai-gow poker, you fork over a 5% commission each time you win a hand.

    Bob explained how you pay vig when you win at craps.

    It's not rocket science, gang.


    so the correct answer is that the winner always pays the juice?
     
    cmo1037
    cmo1037
    Veteran
    Participation Meter
    Joined: Jan, 2008
    Posts: 4080
    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 5:31 PM ET #154

    Quote Originally Posted by Maritimus:

    After much thought, I give up!

    Think of it as a bookie.

    I'm a bookie and you wager $110 to win $100.  When you win, I kept NOTHING and paid you back $210.

    So, when you win, I don't get your juice.



    I can see why people think winner pays when you get $100 for $110 bet.  But the logic still holds that as long as you win, you get EVERYTHING you risked back, true?  

    So, if you go 100-0, the bookie makes $0 from you. But if you go 0-1, you pay juice immediately!  My opinion stands. 




    exactly

    sorry dl36 but you are a moron for thinking that, the above is the absolute best way to prove that the winner pays NO juice, and the loser does.  unreal some of you fucking idiots do not understand this.  you proclaim that the book wins when the bettor wins, or that a -110 bet is actually a -105 bet...sure, tell yourselves whatever you want.  but like the example above by my man maritimus states, the winner paid absolutely NOTHING. 
    if you are the book in that situation, how have you been paid anything

    wait, here's your response before you post it:  "well you should have won more"
    well no shit, i risked more, and if i were betting at a true even line i would have more, but i knew i was betting at a -110 line, and i won and paid nothing.

    fuck off
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by Maritimus:

    After much thought, I give up!

    Think of it as a bookie.

    I'm a bookie and you wager $110 to win $100.  When you win, I kept NOTHING and paid you back $210.

    So, when you win, I don't get your juice.



    I can see why people think winner pays when you get $100 for $110 bet.  But the logic still holds that as long as you win, you get EVERYTHING you risked back, true?  

    So, if you go 100-0, the bookie makes $0 from you. But if you go 0-1, you pay juice immediately!  My opinion stands. 




    exactly

    sorry dl36 but you are a moron for thinking that, the above is the absolute best way to prove that the winner pays NO juice, and the loser does.  unreal some of you fucking idiots do not understand this.  you proclaim that the book wins when the bettor wins, or that a -110 bet is actually a -105 bet...sure, tell yourselves whatever you want.  but like the example above by my man maritimus states, the winner paid absolutely NOTHING. 
    if you are the book in that situation, how have you been paid anything

    wait, here's your response before you post it:  "well you should have won more"
    well no shit, i risked more, and if i were betting at a true even line i would have more, but i knew i was betting at a -110 line, and i won and paid nothing.

    fuck off
     
    dl36
    dl36
    Banned
    Participation Meter
    Joined: Jul, 2003
    Posts: 27850
    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 11:34 PM ET #155

    Quote Originally Posted by dl36:

    If you are the bookie, you are taking 5% on each side...

    thats what makes the juice 10%

    5% + 5% = 10%...

    not that hard....

    Once again...

    a bet for $110 to win $100

    is actually a $105 bet and the bookie takes $5 (5%) regardless if you win or lose...

    $105 win - $5 juice = $100 for a win
    $105 loss - $5 juice = $110 for a loss

    Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 

    I know there are those that cannot grasp this and will tyr to insult me and will insist that I dont know what Im talking about, but tell me how I am wrong on this...

    Is there really a better explanation?

    5% + 5% = 10% juice...


    but is not mathematically incorrect either...

    so moron I am not...

    both answers are actually correct...  depending on which way you view it...

    a moron would say there is only one answer because he could not see the math and logic of multiple answers...
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by dl36:

    If you are the bookie, you are taking 5% on each side...

    thats what makes the juice 10%

    5% + 5% = 10%...

    not that hard....

    Once again...

    a bet for $110 to win $100

    is actually a $105 bet and the bookie takes $5 (5%) regardless if you win or lose...

    $105 win - $5 juice = $100 for a win
    $105 loss - $5 juice = $110 for a loss

    Why are people making this harder then it is supposed to be? 

    I know there are those that cannot grasp this and will tyr to insult me and will insist that I dont know what Im talking about, but tell me how I am wrong on this...

    Is there really a better explanation?

    5% + 5% = 10% juice...


    but is not mathematically incorrect either...

    so moron I am not...

    both answers are actually correct...  depending on which way you view it...

    a moron would say there is only one answer because he could not see the math and logic of multiple answers...
     
    scalabrine
    scalabrine
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    Posted: Oct. 30, 2010 - 11:40 PM ET #156

    This is really getting embarrassing (especially for cmo1037 who is waltzing through this thread like a know it all but is making a fool of himself...he's like a rich guy walking into a cocktail party who thinks everyone is eyeing him for his money and good looks and it's actually because he has his fly open).

    If the loser pays the juice what is the amount?????

    There are two bets made at a casino.

    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.

    If bettor A wins, the casino pays $100 to the A with B's money. It actually OWED A $110 but since A paid $10 juice, it only handed over $100 and keeps the $10 it would have otherwise paid out. The casino's financial books should read a -$10 balance but it does not because A paid $10 after it won as juice.

    What is the juice if B paid it? That is in dispute. And the real answer is $0. 

    B lost $100...end of story. If B paid juice, it would have paid 100/110, $90.9 in losses and $9.10 for the juice.

    Where is the other $.90 that makes up for the $10 the casino kept from A? 

    Of course the answer is that B paid no juice and A paid it all. If it hadn't, the casino would be $.90 in the red on every $110 vs. $100 bet, and would be a few cents in the red for any other combination of bets where B pays A's bet. 

    This may seem minor, but for an online sportsbook that handles 10's of thousands of bets every day, it will eventually bust them (as it does us if we don't hit over the lost percentage because we are paying it as winners).

    Now enough is enough...END OF THREAD!!!...Enough has been said about this and it's quite straightforward!!! 
    Reply
    This is really getting embarrassing (especially for cmo1037 who is waltzing through this thread like a know it all but is making a fool of himself...he's like a rich guy walking into a cocktail party who thinks everyone is eyeing him for his money and good looks and it's actually because he has his fly open).

    If the loser pays the juice what is the amount?????

    There are two bets made at a casino.

    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.

    If bettor A wins, the casino pays $100 to the A with B's money. It actually OWED A $110 but since A paid $10 juice, it only handed over $100 and keeps the $10 it would have otherwise paid out. The casino's financial books should read a -$10 balance but it does not because A paid $10 after it won as juice.

    What is the juice if B paid it? That is in dispute. And the real answer is $0. 

    B lost $100...end of story. If B paid juice, it would have paid 100/110, $90.9 in losses and $9.10 for the juice.

    Where is the other $.90 that makes up for the $10 the casino kept from A? 

    Of course the answer is that B paid no juice and A paid it all. If it hadn't, the casino would be $.90 in the red on every $110 vs. $100 bet, and would be a few cents in the red for any other combination of bets where B pays A's bet. 

    This may seem minor, but for an online sportsbook that handles 10's of thousands of bets every day, it will eventually bust them (as it does us if we don't hit over the lost percentage because we are paying it as winners).

    Now enough is enough...END OF THREAD!!!...Enough has been said about this and it's quite straightforward!!! 
     
    cmo1037
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    Posted: Oct. 31, 2010 - 12:02 AM ET #157

    Quote Originally Posted by scalabrine:

    This is really getting embarrassing (especially for cmo1037 who is waltzing through this thread like a know it all but is making a fool of himself...he's like a rich guy walking into a cocktail party who thinks everyone is eyeing him for his money and good looks and it's actually because he has his fly open).

    If the loser pays the juice what is the amount?????

    There are two bets made at a casino.

    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.

    If bettor A wins, the casino pays $100 to the A with B's money. It actually OWED A $110 but since A paid $10 juice, it only handed over $100 and keeps the $10 it would have otherwise paid out. The casino's financial books should read a -$10 balance but it does not because A paid $10 after it won as juice.

    What is the juice if B paid it? That is in dispute. And the real answer is $0. 

    B lost $100...end of story. If B paid juice, it would have paid 100/110, $90.9 in losses and $9.10 for the juice.

    Where is the other $.90 that makes up for the $10 the casino kept from A? 

    Of course the answer is that B paid no juice and A paid it all. If it hadn't, the casino would be $.90 in the red on every $110 vs. $100 bet, and would be a few cents in the red for any other combination of bets where B pays A's bet. 

    This may seem minor, but for an online sportsbook that handles 10's of thousands of bets every day, it will eventually bust them (as it does us if we don't hit over the lost percentage because we are paying it as winners).

    Now enough is enough...END OF THREAD!!!...Enough has been said about this and it's quite straightforward!!! 



    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.
     
    thanks for the clarification you racist dick.
    first you say lakers @-110 and celts @-110 w/no spread....
    then you claim lakers risk 110 to win 100 and b risk 100 to win -110...???why are they both not risk 110 to win 100???  
    i have an idea, go fuck yourself.

    i'm going to go shoot the dirt with one of my buddies.

    i hope we can meet some day friend.

    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by scalabrine:

    This is really getting embarrassing (especially for cmo1037 who is waltzing through this thread like a know it all but is making a fool of himself...he's like a rich guy walking into a cocktail party who thinks everyone is eyeing him for his money and good looks and it's actually because he has his fly open).

    If the loser pays the juice what is the amount?????

    There are two bets made at a casino.

    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.

    If bettor A wins, the casino pays $100 to the A with B's money. It actually OWED A $110 but since A paid $10 juice, it only handed over $100 and keeps the $10 it would have otherwise paid out. The casino's financial books should read a -$10 balance but it does not because A paid $10 after it won as juice.

    What is the juice if B paid it? That is in dispute. And the real answer is $0. 

    B lost $100...end of story. If B paid juice, it would have paid 100/110, $90.9 in losses and $9.10 for the juice.

    Where is the other $.90 that makes up for the $10 the casino kept from A? 

    Of course the answer is that B paid no juice and A paid it all. If it hadn't, the casino would be $.90 in the red on every $110 vs. $100 bet, and would be a few cents in the red for any other combination of bets where B pays A's bet. 

    This may seem minor, but for an online sportsbook that handles 10's of thousands of bets every day, it will eventually bust them (as it does us if we don't hit over the lost percentage because we are paying it as winners).

    Now enough is enough...END OF THREAD!!!...Enough has been said about this and it's quite straightforward!!! 



    Lakers -110 vs. Celts -110 no spread

    A: One is for $110 on the Lakers -110.

    B: The other is for $100 on the Celts -110.
     
    thanks for the clarification you racist dick.
    first you say lakers @-110 and celts @-110 w/no spread....
    then you claim lakers risk 110 to win 100 and b risk 100 to win -110...???why are they both not risk 110 to win 100???  
    i have an idea, go fuck yourself.

    i'm going to go shoot the dirt with one of my buddies.

    i hope we can meet some day friend.

     
    Spitfire15
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    Posted: Oct. 31, 2010 - 12:34 AM ET #158

    You are WRONG, Scalabrine... let me see if I can explain.


    You argument is simply a perspective that make it seem that the winner pays the juice.  When you look at it as if the bettor has a set amount to risk ($110) and can only win $100, it looks like the winner pays the juice.

    If you look at it as if a bettor has a certain amount to win $100, but the bookie imposes 10 cents juice, so I have to risk $110, when I lose I lose an extra $10... so the loser pays the juice.

    It's just a matter of perspective...


    We are arguing over who PAYS the juice... IMO, clearly, since the bookie PAYS the winner and loser PAYS the bookie, even if the winner received less than he should have, it was paid by the loser...

    ....this leaves us at a dead end clearly the winner lost out of money too!


    WELL THIS IS BECAUSE THEY BOTH LOSE MONEY, which I have been trying to argue for a while now.


    The question was 'who pays the juice?' ---- the SAME question, phrased differently, that would allow for everyone to have the same answer..... "Who pays the RISK?'  simplified even further, Which side loses out from paying the juice?   BOTH!!!!

    The problem that causes this paradox that has everyone debating is that WE ARE LOOKING AT IT AS IF THE GAME IS ALREADY OVER, and then justifying how we won or lost.  When we bet, we don't know if we will win or lose,

    -- I can bet $1100 to win $1000 and say that if I lose, I pay 100 juice

    -- I can bet $1000 to win $909 and say that if I win I pay $91 juice

    -- I can bet $1047.75 to win $952.25 and say that regardless of winning or losing, I will pay $47.75 in juice


    But regardless of how you look at it AFTER THE FACT, the reality is that the RISK is the same BEFORE THE BET on BOTH SIDES.






    Fuck yeah.

    Reply
    You are WRONG, Scalabrine... let me see if I can explain.


    You argument is simply a perspective that make it seem that the winner pays the juice.  When you look at it as if the bettor has a set amount to risk ($110) and can only win $100, it looks like the winner pays the juice.

    If you look at it as if a bettor has a certain amount to win $100, but the bookie imposes 10 cents juice, so I have to risk $110, when I lose I lose an extra $10... so the loser pays the juice.

    It's just a matter of perspective...


    We are arguing over who PAYS the juice... IMO, clearly, since the bookie PAYS the winner and loser PAYS the bookie, even if the winner received less than he should have, it was paid by the loser...

    ....this leaves us at a dead end clearly the winner lost out of money too!


    WELL THIS IS BECAUSE THEY BOTH LOSE MONEY, which I have been trying to argue for a while now.


    The question was 'who pays the juice?' ---- the SAME question, phrased differently, that would allow for everyone to have the same answer..... "Who pays the RISK?'  simplified even further, Which side loses out from paying the juice?   BOTH!!!!

    The problem that causes this paradox that has everyone debating is that WE ARE LOOKING AT IT AS IF THE GAME IS ALREADY OVER, and then justifying how we won or lost.  When we bet, we don't know if we will win or lose,

    -- I can bet $1100 to win $1000 and say that if I lose, I pay 100 juice

    -- I can bet $1000 to win $909 and say that if I win I pay $91 juice

    -- I can bet $1047.75 to win $952.25 and say that regardless of winning or losing, I will pay $47.75 in juice


    But regardless of how you look at it AFTER THE FACT, the reality is that the RISK is the same BEFORE THE BET on BOTH SIDES.






    Fuck yeah.

     
    scalabrine
    scalabrine
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    Posted: Oct. 31, 2010 - 1:33 AM ET #159

    Quote Originally Posted by Spitfire15:

    You are WRONG, Scalabrine... let me see if I can explain.


    You argument is simply a perspective that make it seem that the winner pays the juice.  When you look at it as if the bettor has a set amount to risk ($110) and can only win $100, it looks like the winner pays the juice.

    If you look at it as if a bettor has a certain amount to win $100, but the bookie imposes 10 cents juice, so I have to risk $110, when I lose I lose an extra $10... so the loser pays the juice.

    It's just a matter of perspective...


    We are arguing over who PAYS the juice... IMO, clearly, since the bookie PAYS the winner and loser PAYS the bookie, even if the winner received less than he should have, it was paid by the loser...

    ....this leaves us at a dead end clearly the winner lost out of money too!


    WELL THIS IS BECAUSE THEY BOTH LOSE MONEY, which I have been trying to argue for a while now.


    The question was 'who pays the juice?' ---- the SAME question, phrased differently, that would allow for everyone to have the same answer..... "Who pays the RISK?'  simplified even further, Which side loses out from paying the juice?   BOTH!!!!

    The problem that causes this paradox that has everyone debating is that WE ARE LOOKING AT IT AS IF THE GAME IS ALREADY OVER, and then justifying how we won or lost.  When we bet, we don't know if we will win or lose,

    -- I can bet $1100 to win $1000 and say that if I lose, I pay 100 juice

    -- I can bet $1000 to win $909 and say that if I win I pay $91 juice

    -- I can bet $1047.75 to win $952.25 and say that regardless of winning or losing, I will pay $47.75 in juice



    But regardless of how you look at it AFTER THE FACT, the reality is that the RISK is the same BEFORE THE BET on BOTH SIDES.






    Fuck yeah.


    The bolded part is completely false (as is the rest of your post along with Cmo's but I don't have the time or patience to address it all so I will choose your most flagrant bonehead musings).

    The loser LOST. That's it! End of story. The bookie pockets your money and walks away regardless of the amount. There is no clear indication from the bettor or bookie that specifies how much a LOSER pays in juice.

    I defy ANY BOOKIE to tell me how much juice he collected on a LOSING bet. 

    But the winner participated in a successful transaction. Much like in sales, a commission is granted to the salesman who made the transaction possible. When you bet $110 you are rightfully owed $110. But the bookie steps in and says that $10 of your bet was never really bet: it was put aside so that if you ended up winning the bet, your $110 would be returned to you and $100 would be rightfully paid at even odds. The $10 that should have been doubled is never paid. That is the bookie's vig/vigorish/juice.

    That is clear and straightforward on a WINNING bet because that is how the system works. NO ONE CAN TELL ME what the losing juice is. It is not clear. Why? Because it doesn't exist.

    Much like the rake in poker, 9 people enter a multiway pot. You hit the nut flush on the river and take it down and take it down. There are NINE PEOPLE A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I in this pot who have all contributed different amounts at different times, dropping out at each street. The pot is pushed to you. It is ALL YOUR MONEY. Do you know what happens next? The dealer takes 10% or $4 max out of the pot as the rake FROM YOU, the winner. It would take a graduate level math course and maybe some computer programming to figure out how much juice each of the nine players paid in total with each of their bets at different times. 

    But is this necessary? NO! Because they paid NO JUICE. They paid YOU and then YOU PAID THE HOUSE AFTER YOU WON!

    END OF STORY GUYS. It's got to stop and it's got to stop ASAP. 

    We are a community of degenerate gamblers and some here with thousands and thousands of posts fail to understand WHAT RUNS THE ENTIRE INDUSTRY!!!!


    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by Spitfire15:

    You are WRONG, Scalabrine... let me see if I can explain.


    You argument is simply a perspective that make it seem that the winner pays the juice.  When you look at it as if the bettor has a set amount to risk ($110) and can only win $100, it looks like the winner pays the juice.

    If you look at it as if a bettor has a certain amount to win $100, but the bookie imposes 10 cents juice, so I have to risk $110, when I lose I lose an extra $10... so the loser pays the juice.

    It's just a matter of perspective...


    We are arguing over who PAYS the juice... IMO, clearly, since the bookie PAYS the winner and loser PAYS the bookie, even if the winner received less than he should have, it was paid by the loser...

    ....this leaves us at a dead end clearly the winner lost out of money too!


    WELL THIS IS BECAUSE THEY BOTH LOSE MONEY, which I have been trying to argue for a while now.


    The question was 'who pays the juice?' ---- the SAME question, phrased differently, that would allow for everyone to have the same answer..... "Who pays the RISK?'  simplified even further, Which side loses out from paying the juice?   BOTH!!!!

    The problem that causes this paradox that has everyone debating is that WE ARE LOOKING AT IT AS IF THE GAME IS ALREADY OVER, and then justifying how we won or lost.  When we bet, we don't know if we will win or lose,

    -- I can bet $1100 to win $1000 and say that if I lose, I pay 100 juice

    -- I can bet $1000 to win $909 and say that if I win I pay $91 juice

    -- I can bet $1047.75 to win $952.25 and say that regardless of winning or losing, I will pay $47.75 in juice



    But regardless of how you look at it AFTER THE FACT, the reality is that the RISK is the same BEFORE THE BET on BOTH SIDES.






    Fuck yeah.


    The bolded part is completely false (as is the rest of your post along with Cmo's but I don't have the time or patience to address it all so I will choose your most flagrant bonehead musings).

    The loser LOST. That's it! End of story. The bookie pockets your money and walks away regardless of the amount. There is no clear indication from the bettor or bookie that specifies how much a LOSER pays in juice.

    I defy ANY BOOKIE to tell me how much juice he collected on a LOSING bet. 

    But the winner participated in a successful transaction. Much like in sales, a commission is granted to the salesman who made the transaction possible. When you bet $110 you are rightfully owed $110. But the bookie steps in and says that $10 of your bet was never really bet: it was put aside so that if you ended up winning the bet, your $110 would be returned to you and $100 would be rightfully paid at even odds. The $10 that should have been doubled is never paid. That is the bookie's vig/vigorish/juice.

    That is clear and straightforward on a WINNING bet because that is how the system works. NO ONE CAN TELL ME what the losing juice is. It is not clear. Why? Because it doesn't exist.

    Much like the rake in poker, 9 people enter a multiway pot. You hit the nut flush on the river and take it down and take it down. There are NINE PEOPLE A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I in this pot who have all contributed different amounts at different times, dropping out at each street. The pot is pushed to you. It is ALL YOUR MONEY. Do you know what happens next? The dealer takes 10% or $4 max out of the pot as the rake FROM YOU, the winner. It would take a graduate level math course and maybe some computer programming to figure out how much juice each of the nine players paid in total with each of their bets at different times. 

    But is this necessary? NO! Because they paid NO JUICE. They paid YOU and then YOU PAID THE HOUSE AFTER YOU WON!

    END OF STORY GUYS. It's got to stop and it's got to stop ASAP. 

    We are a community of degenerate gamblers and some here with thousands and thousands of posts fail to understand WHAT RUNS THE ENTIRE INDUSTRY!!!!


     
    Ed-Collins
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    Posted: Oct. 31, 2010 - 8:29 AM ET #160

    Quote Originally Posted by scalabrine:


    The bookie pockets your money and walks away regardless of the amount. There is no clear indication from the bettor or bookie that specifies how much a LOSER pays in juice.

    I defy ANY BOOKIE to tell me how much juice he collected on a LOSING bet. 

    But the winner participated in a successful transaction. Much like in sales, a commission is granted to the salesman who made the transaction possible. When you bet $110 you are rightfully owed $110. But the bookie steps in and says that $10 of your bet was never really bet: it was put aside so that if you ended up winning the bet, your $110 would be returned to you and $100 would be rightfully paid at even odds. The $10 that should have been doubled is never paid. That is the bookie's vig/vigorish/juice.

    That is clear and straightforward on a WINNING bet because that is how the system works. NO ONE CAN TELL ME what the losing juice is. It is not clear. Why? Because it doesn't exist.

    Much like the rake in poker, 9 people enter a multiway pot. You hit the nut flush on the river and take it down and take it down. There are NINE PEOPLE A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I in this pot who have all contributed different amounts at different times, dropping out at each street. The pot is pushed to you. It is ALL YOUR MONEY. Do you know what happens next? The dealer takes 10% or $4 max out of the pot as the rake FROM YOU, the winner. It would take a graduate level math course and maybe some computer programming to figure out how much juice each of the nine players paid in total with each of their bets at different times. 

    But is this necessary? NO! Because they paid NO JUICE. They paid YOU and then YOU PAID THE HOUSE AFTER YOU WON!



      All of the above is 100% correct. 

    I said basically the same thing back on the 20th.  When a bet is lost there is no way to determine what the juice was, or if there was any juice on that bet at all.  Only when a bet is won, and when the amount of the bet and the amount returned is known, can it be determined if there was juice and how much.

    Nice analogy about poker.  We can add that to the analogies of pai-gow poker, roulette, baccarat, and craps.  But then again, it works for every single casino game or sports book bet, of course.

    If the bookie paid each winner $220 on each $110 bet, and then asked the winner for $10 of it back, we wouldn't be having this discussion.  But that's exactly what happens.  He just saves a step and only pays you after he takes out the juice himself.

    Sorry to the people who still don't understand it.  (Or who understand it but don't wish to admit it.)

    Casino owner Bob Stupak summed it up very nicely, back in 1983:  Players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by scalabrine:


    The bookie pockets your money and walks away regardless of the amount. There is no clear indication from the bettor or bookie that specifies how much a LOSER pays in juice.

    I defy ANY BOOKIE to tell me how much juice he collected on a LOSING bet. 

    But the winner participated in a successful transaction. Much like in sales, a commission is granted to the salesman who made the transaction possible. When you bet $110 you are rightfully owed $110. But the bookie steps in and says that $10 of your bet was never really bet: it was put aside so that if you ended up winning the bet, your $110 would be returned to you and $100 would be rightfully paid at even odds. The $10 that should have been doubled is never paid. That is the bookie's vig/vigorish/juice.

    That is clear and straightforward on a WINNING bet because that is how the system works. NO ONE CAN TELL ME what the losing juice is. It is not clear. Why? Because it doesn't exist.

    Much like the rake in poker, 9 people enter a multiway pot. You hit the nut flush on the river and take it down and take it down. There are NINE PEOPLE A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I in this pot who have all contributed different amounts at different times, dropping out at each street. The pot is pushed to you. It is ALL YOUR MONEY. Do you know what happens next? The dealer takes 10% or $4 max out of the pot as the rake FROM YOU, the winner. It would take a graduate level math course and maybe some computer programming to figure out how much juice each of the nine players paid in total with each of their bets at different times. 

    But is this necessary? NO! Because they paid NO JUICE. They paid YOU and then YOU PAID THE HOUSE AFTER YOU WON!



      All of the above is 100% correct. 

    I said basically the same thing back on the 20th.  When a bet is lost there is no way to determine what the juice was, or if there was any juice on that bet at all.  Only when a bet is won, and when the amount of the bet and the amount returned is known, can it be determined if there was juice and how much.

    Nice analogy about poker.  We can add that to the analogies of pai-gow poker, roulette, baccarat, and craps.  But then again, it works for every single casino game or sports book bet, of course.

    If the bookie paid each winner $220 on each $110 bet, and then asked the winner for $10 of it back, we wouldn't be having this discussion.  But that's exactly what happens.  He just saves a step and only pays you after he takes out the juice himself.

    Sorry to the people who still don't understand it.  (Or who understand it but don't wish to admit it.)

    Casino owner Bob Stupak summed it up very nicely, back in 1983:  Players are paying the house edge only when they win - never when they lose.
     
    Ed-Collins
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    Posted: Oct. 31, 2010 - 8:43 AM ET #161

    Quote Originally Posted by Maritimus:



    Think of it as a bookie...



    Good idea!

    I'm a bookie.  Someone makes a $110 bet with me.  He wins.  I pay him a total of $220.  I then charge him $10 in vig/juice.  The net result is that he risked $110 and won $100. 

    My right pocket, my escrow pocket, is now down $110... the amount I had to pay the winner.

    My left pocket is my juice pocket.  This pocket now has $10 in it... the amount of juice I earned.

    Next week he comes back and again makes a $110 bet with me.  This week he loses.  All of the money goes back into my right pocket.  And this pocket now has the $110 in it, the amount I lost from it last week.  My left pocket still contains the $10 juice I earned last week.

    In the long run, my right pocket will stay the same.  Oh, it will fluctuate of course, but I can expect to win as many bets as I lose.  It's only the amount in my left pocket, my juice pocket, that will always continue to increase.  It increases each time one of my customers wins a bet, and has to pay me juice.  This is the amount of money I earned.

    Bob Stupak:  I can't survive on "won" money.  I can only survive on "earned" money.
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by Maritimus:



    Think of it as a bookie...



    Good idea!

    I'm a bookie.  Someone makes a $110 bet with me.  He wins.  I pay him a total of $220.  I then charge him $10 in vig/juice.  The net result is that he risked $110 and won $100. 

    My right pocket, my escrow pocket, is now down $110... the amount I had to pay the winner.

    My left pocket is my juice pocket.  This pocket now has $10 in it... the amount of juice I earned.

    Next week he comes back and again makes a $110 bet with me.  This week he loses.  All of the money goes back into my right pocket.  And this pocket now has the $110 in it, the amount I lost from it last week.  My left pocket still contains the $10 juice I earned last week.

    In the long run, my right pocket will stay the same.  Oh, it will fluctuate of course, but I can expect to win as many bets as I lose.  It's only the amount in my left pocket, my juice pocket, that will always continue to increase.  It increases each time one of my customers wins a bet, and has to pay me juice.  This is the amount of money I earned.

    Bob Stupak:  I can't survive on "won" money.  I can only survive on "earned" money.
     
    NOLAKingfish
    NOLAKingfish
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    Posted: Jul. 6, 2011 - 5:59 PM ET #162

    You can send the vig my way.
    Reply
    You can send the vig my way.
     
    John_Drama
    John_Drama
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    Posts: 1868
    Posted: Jul. 6, 2011 - 7:59 PM ET #163

    why the bump?
    Reply
    why the bump?
     
    KennyWoo
    KennyWoo
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    Posted: Mar. 16, 2015 - 10:57 PM ET #164

    This idiocy came up again recently in the "College Gambler goes pro" thread.  Bumping.
    Reply
    This idiocy came up again recently in the "College Gambler goes pro" thread.  Bumping.
     
    thecentaur
    thecentaur
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    Posted: Mar. 17, 2015 - 11:43 PM ET #165

    I didn't read the full 5 pages of this thread but

    I say they both do
    Reply
    I didn't read the full 5 pages of this thread but

    I say they both do
     
    dimndimn
    dimndimn
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    Posted: Mar. 18, 2015 - 2:22 AM ET #166

    Quote Originally Posted by thecentaur:

    I didn't read the full 5 pages of this thread but

    I say they both do

    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by thecentaur:

    I didn't read the full 5 pages of this thread but

    I say they both do

    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 
     
    thecentaur
    thecentaur
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    Posted: Mar. 18, 2015 - 1:33 PM ET #167

    Quote Originally Posted by dimndimn:


    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 

    No bettor wins all his bets, so the juice is paid when he bets at juiced odds. 

    Casinos don't invite winners back and comp them because they didn't pay juice when they won.
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by dimndimn:


    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 

    No bettor wins all his bets, so the juice is paid when he bets at juiced odds. 

    Casinos don't invite winners back and comp them because they didn't pay juice when they won.
     
    thecentaur
    thecentaur
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    Posted: Mar. 18, 2015 - 1:36 PM ET #168

    Quote Originally Posted by thecentaur:


    No bettor wins all his bets, so the juice is paid when he bets at juiced odds. 

    Casinos don't invite winners back and comp them because they didn't pay juice when they won.

    And Casinos don't turn away losers because they haven't been paying juice.

    If you're playing, you're paying
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by thecentaur:


    No bettor wins all his bets, so the juice is paid when he bets at juiced odds. 

    Casinos don't invite winners back and comp them because they didn't pay juice when they won.

    And Casinos don't turn away losers because they haven't been paying juice.

    If you're playing, you're paying
     
    vanzack
    vanzack
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    Posted: Mar. 18, 2015 - 1:49 PM ET #169

    Quote Originally Posted by vanzack:

    Another moron who no longer respects me.

    Get in line. 

    Look - the discussion is one of semantics - but one that most automatically assume that losers pay the juice.  It depends on a lot of factors how you debate this - and it can turn in to a chicken or egg - but to dismiss that winners pay vig is wrong.  Winners get paid less than they should, and therefore pay vig.

    Thats why I always laugh when I read posts that line and price shopping is irrelevant if you pick winners.  Not true.  If I bet a side at -110, and I could have gotten it at -105, I am risking more to win less - in other words - I have basically given the house money for nothing (vig).

    I desperately hope there is some way I can earn your respect again.  Dope.

    I always get worried when I see a thread bumped from years and years ago at what I said back then....

    But this quote above is funny.

    Future Vanzack approves of Past Vanzack in this case.

    Support your local animal shelter. I am on twitter.
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by vanzack:

    Another moron who no longer respects me.

    Get in line. 

    Look - the discussion is one of semantics - but one that most automatically assume that losers pay the juice.  It depends on a lot of factors how you debate this - and it can turn in to a chicken or egg - but to dismiss that winners pay vig is wrong.  Winners get paid less than they should, and therefore pay vig.

    Thats why I always laugh when I read posts that line and price shopping is irrelevant if you pick winners.  Not true.  If I bet a side at -110, and I could have gotten it at -105, I am risking more to win less - in other words - I have basically given the house money for nothing (vig).

    I desperately hope there is some way I can earn your respect again.  Dope.

    I always get worried when I see a thread bumped from years and years ago at what I said back then....

    But this quote above is funny.

    Future Vanzack approves of Past Vanzack in this case.

     
    thecentaur
    thecentaur
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    Posted: Mar. 18, 2015 - 2:38 PM ET #170

    Quote Originally Posted by vanzack:


    Future Vanzack approves of Past Vanzack in this case.


    Future Vansack approving of past Vansack makes present Vansack a douche
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by vanzack:


    Future Vanzack approves of Past Vanzack in this case.


    Future Vansack approving of past Vansack makes present Vansack a douche
     
    Hirschfelder
    Hirschfelder
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    Posted: Mar. 25, 2015 - 2:41 AM ET #171

    Quote Originally Posted by dimndimn:


    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 


    no, he's 100% correct
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by dimndimn:


    You're wrong.  You should help yourself out and read this thread.

    Any thread that gets multiple posts from both Ed-Collins and vanzack is bound to be informative. 


    no, he's 100% correct
     
    thorpe
    thorpe
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    Posted: Mar. 26, 2015 - 9:24 AM ET #172

    Quote Originally Posted by Hirschfelder:



    no, he's 100% correct


    You pay the juice before you make the bet.

    If I bet 110 to win 100, what I am doing is paying 10 to the house so that they will accept my 100 bet at even money.

    If you pay the juice before you make the bet, how can it be you only pay juice if you win?


    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by Hirschfelder:



    no, he's 100% correct


    You pay the juice before you make the bet.

    If I bet 110 to win 100, what I am doing is paying 10 to the house so that they will accept my 100 bet at even money.

    If you pay the juice before you make the bet, how can it be you only pay juice if you win?


     
    KennyWoo
    KennyWoo
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    Posted: Mar. 26, 2015 - 11:24 AM ET #173

    Quiz question:

    You bet $50.  You lose.  How much juice did you pay?
    Reply
    Quiz question:

    You bet $50.  You lose.  How much juice did you pay?
     
    BIGfnPOO
    BIGfnPOO
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    Posted: Mar. 26, 2015 - 11:51 AM ET #174

    in complex terms Stupak is right,,  for you degens, betting everyday,, the losers pay the juice. Stupak is correct tho. 


    the simple answer is . LOSERS pay the juice,... we all pay the built in vig when we win
    bigFnPOO
    Reply
    in complex terms Stupak is right,,  for you degens, betting everyday,, the losers pay the juice. Stupak is correct tho. 


    the simple answer is . LOSERS pay the juice,... we all pay the built in vig when we win
     
     
    Hirschfelder
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    Posted: Mar. 27, 2015 - 7:33 AM ET #175

    Quote Originally Posted by thorpe:



    You pay the juice before you make the bet.

    If I bet 110 to win 100, what I am doing is paying 10 to the house so that they will accept my 100 bet at even money.

    If you pay the juice before you make the bet, how can it be you only pay juice if you win?



    Correct. You pay the vig when you take -110, regardless if it wins or loses. If winners didn't pay the vig they'll be getting paid on +100 and not the -110.

    If people cannot grasp this then they will continue to be part of the 98%
    Reply
    Quote Originally Posted by thorpe:



    You pay the juice before you make the bet.

    If I bet 110 to win 100, what I am doing is paying 10 to the house so that they will accept my 100 bet at even money.

    If you pay the juice before you make the bet, how can it be you only pay juice if you win?



    Correct. You pay the vig when you take -110, regardless if it wins or loses. If winners didn't pay the vig they'll be getting paid on +100 and not the -110.

    If people cannot grasp this then they will continue to be part of the 98%
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