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[Soccer] Topic: please help me answer my question on chelsea liverpool game |
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teabaaag |
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#1 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:20:38 AM If i bet Chelsea +pk,½ -119 and bet liverpool ml +128... won't i win automatically? positive side or even money if chelsea outright wins?
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teabaaag |
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#2 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:21:46 AM risk 119 to win 100 on chelsea side +pk,1/2? and risk 100 to win 128 on liverpool side ml
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Raiders22 |
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#3 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:27:53 AM How does draw figure in? |
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teabaaag |
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#4 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:29:03 AM if a draw happens wouldnt it push liverpool moneyline?
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teabaaag |
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#5 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:29:52 AM and +pk1/2 win on chelsea side?
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Raiders22 |
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#6 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:31:40 AM ML means you have to win only or bet loses |
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teabaaag |
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#7 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:32:13 AM ooo alright
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teabaaag |
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#8 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:33:05 AM if it loses than wouldnt i win the chelsea +pk 1/2?
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Raiders22 |
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#9 Posted: 5/8/2012 3:40:15 AM For example: • Liverpool +¼ -120 • Chelsea -¼ EV
In this case, the wager is divided between a bet on the PK and a bet on the half-goal handicap. For example, if you back Chelsea for $20 to beat Liverpool with a handicap of -0 & -0.5 ( -¼), then you have two separate $10 bets (at the same Odds, EV120 in the example) this is : Chelsea -0 and Chelsea -0.5
• If Chelsea wins by 1 goal or more, both bets win. • If the game is drawn, then the -0.5 handicap bet loses and the other half (+0) is a push. • If Chelsea loses, then both parts of the bet lose.
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dick747 |
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#10 Posted: 5/8/2012 7:24:31 AM no & no but i'd like to live in your world - win win situation are similar to the unicorn, don't see many of those do we.
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