Quote Originally Posted by Sumtingwong:
A stop should not be arbitrary and risk must be managed and predefined for each bettor. For instance, if you are up 10% betting the NHL, a chase could encompass all your winnings for the year until the bankroll is even. At this point, the chase stops. If the chase happens to run to 10 bets based on the 10% winnings, standard deviation tells us that this is a slim possibility and there should be a win in there somewhere.
I am curious as to your methodology for trading: what stops were placed and why? Are they any more arbitrary than here? Did you chase bad trades?
I am sweeping away the cobwebs on the stats and running some numbers. Will post when through. I think there is a confidence level that may come into play as well.
All said, if your system is working, keep rolling.
The 'stop' you have described is, in fact, arbitrary. It is based only on the objective you hope to accomplish, viz., winning. It is not based on a statistical probability that you expect based on a formula.
Of course, I do agree about the slim possibilities of a 10 game losing streak, but you can easily calculate the probabilities based on say, 50% per event: .09%.
As to your question, I don't think you've read the full thread. There are no 'stops' here, because we are not using a progressive system.
In the MLB, we used no stops, because as I've indicated here, they're purely arbitrary and have no mathematical basis for placement. As I asked previous questioners, how do you choose whether it's 4, 5, 10 or 20? The immediately succeeding event would have a far higher probability than it's predecessor, so I don't see how you choose. Case in point is the example you've used, i.e., 10 game chase, where the probability of a 9 game losing streak is 0.195% and the 10 game losing streak is 0.098%
Over the course of the MLB season our longest losing streak was 7. We had several of 4. 2 and 3 game streaks were common.