yesterday in the AZ/SF game, SF completes a pass to boldin to the AZ 5. then that idiot Boldin headbutts the AZ guy and gets a dead ball 15 yard personal foul penalty. since it was first and goal at the 5, the refs said it was now first and goal from the 20, or in other words, 1st and 20.
now, if the same play happened on the AZ 25, it would have been first and 10 from the AZ 40 after the 15 yard penalty, not 1st and 25 from the 40.
should the refs have "reset" the yardage to first and 10 from the 20 or were they correct that it was first and goal from the 20?
yesterday in the AZ/SF game, SF completes a pass to boldin to the AZ 5. then that idiot Boldin headbutts the AZ guy and gets a dead ball 15 yard personal foul penalty. since it was first and goal at the 5, the refs said it was now first and goal from the 20, or in other words, 1st and 20.
now, if the same play happened on the AZ 25, it would have been first and 10 from the AZ 40 after the 15 yard penalty, not 1st and 25 from the 40.
should the refs have "reset" the yardage to first and 10 from the 20 or were they correct that it was first and goal from the 20?
Let me explain as simply as possible. The personal foul occurred AFTER the play, thus the 1st and 20. Had it occurred during the play, it would have been 1st and 10 with ball on the 20 in both scenarios.
Committing the penalty AFTER or DURING the play is the difference in the distance to gain.
Let me explain as simply as possible. The personal foul occurred AFTER the play, thus the 1st and 20. Had it occurred during the play, it would have been 1st and 10 with ball on the 20 in both scenarios.
Committing the penalty AFTER or DURING the play is the difference in the distance to gain.
Let me explain as simply as possible. The personal foul occurred AFTER the play, thus the 1st and 20. Had it occurred during the play, it would have been 1st and 10 with ball on the 20 in both scenarios.
Committing the penalty AFTER or DURING the play is the difference in the distance to gain.
i'm pretty sure the opposite is true.
for instance, if it is 2nd and 8 and there is a play where the RB runs for no gain but there is a 15 yard personal foul during the play, it becomes 2nd and 23.
if it is 2nd and 8 and RB runs for no gain and the play ends and there is a late hit by the offense after the play, the down counts and it is now 3rd and 23.
the question is if that changes when it is first and goal and the penalty is after the play like in SF.
Let me explain as simply as possible. The personal foul occurred AFTER the play, thus the 1st and 20. Had it occurred during the play, it would have been 1st and 10 with ball on the 20 in both scenarios.
Committing the penalty AFTER or DURING the play is the difference in the distance to gain.
i'm pretty sure the opposite is true.
for instance, if it is 2nd and 8 and there is a play where the RB runs for no gain but there is a 15 yard personal foul during the play, it becomes 2nd and 23.
if it is 2nd and 8 and RB runs for no gain and the play ends and there is a late hit by the offense after the play, the down counts and it is now 3rd and 23.
the question is if that changes when it is first and goal and the penalty is after the play like in SF.
Chasingit has it right. In the play you're describing, had the penalty occurred DURING the play, the play would've been wiped out.........they would've penalized SF from the original LOS & replayed the down. Since it occurred AFTER the play, the ball is now set where the play ended & then they tack on the penalty.
Chasingit has it right. In the play you're describing, had the penalty occurred DURING the play, the play would've been wiped out.........they would've penalized SF from the original LOS & replayed the down. Since it occurred AFTER the play, the ball is now set where the play ended & then they tack on the penalty.
Chasingit has it right. In the play you're describing, had the penalty occurred DURING the play, the play would've been wiped out.........they would've penalized SF from the original LOS & replayed the down. Since it occurred AFTER the play, the ball is now set where the play ended & then they tack on the penalty.
i think we can all agree on that but that isn't the question.
in other words, let's say it is 3rd and 3 at their own 45 and the RB runs for 5 yards to the 50 for a first down and then there is a dead ball personal foul after the play. in that situation, the offense is penalized 15 yards back to the 35 but it is first and 10 from the 35, not first and 25. why doesn't it work that way when it is first and goal and there is a 15 yard dead ball penalty on the offence.
Chasingit has it right. In the play you're describing, had the penalty occurred DURING the play, the play would've been wiped out.........they would've penalized SF from the original LOS & replayed the down. Since it occurred AFTER the play, the ball is now set where the play ended & then they tack on the penalty.
i think we can all agree on that but that isn't the question.
in other words, let's say it is 3rd and 3 at their own 45 and the RB runs for 5 yards to the 50 for a first down and then there is a dead ball personal foul after the play. in that situation, the offense is penalized 15 yards back to the 35 but it is first and 10 from the 35, not first and 25. why doesn't it work that way when it is first and goal and there is a 15 yard dead ball penalty on the offence.
i think that's the answer. where did you find that.
although i think this is telling me the refs screwed it up, which is what i thought. as i remember, and boldin headbutted the guy after the play which was a first down. that would be a dead ball foul (i.e. like taunting since it was minimal contact and/or happened right after the play) which would move the ball back 15 yards but would be 1st and 10 under those rules rather than 1st and gal from the 25 as they called it.
or, they might have called it a foul between downs (a rule i wasn't aware of) but that doesn't seem appropriate at all.
i think that's the answer. where did you find that.
although i think this is telling me the refs screwed it up, which is what i thought. as i remember, and boldin headbutted the guy after the play which was a first down. that would be a dead ball foul (i.e. like taunting since it was minimal contact and/or happened right after the play) which would move the ball back 15 yards but would be 1st and 10 under those rules rather than 1st and gal from the 25 as they called it.
or, they might have called it a foul between downs (a rule i wasn't aware of) but that doesn't seem appropriate at all.
TJ, that's what i was wondering but looking at getty's post, they must have considered it a foul between downs rather than a dead ball foul. if that's what they did, i think they got it wrong. and 1st and 10 from the 25 vs 1st and goal from the 25 is huge, obviously.
TJ, that's what i was wondering but looking at getty's post, they must have considered it a foul between downs rather than a dead ball foul. if that's what they did, i think they got it wrong. and 1st and 10 from the 25 vs 1st and goal from the 25 is huge, obviously.
If you choose to make use of any information on this website including online sports betting services from any websites that may be featured on this website, we strongly recommend that you carefully check your local laws before doing so. It is your sole responsibility to understand your local laws and observe them strictly. Covers does not provide any advice or guidance as to the legality of online sports betting or other online gambling activities within your jurisdiction and you are responsible for complying with laws that are applicable to you in your relevant locality. Covers disclaims all liability associated with your use of this website and use of any information contained on it. As a condition of using this website, you agree to hold the owner of this website harmless from any claims arising from your use of any services on any third party website that may be featured by Covers.