|I can try to explain as best as I can. If bk has a 5 unit bet, and he has them -1 where the spread only offers ml or rl (-1.5), you take the units and divide by the ml odd and multiply that by however big your unit is, and you bet that amount on ml. You then take the remainder and put it on rl.
Posted: 4/5/2017 1:42:32 AM
So for example tomorrow jays vs orioles is a 5 unit bet. Jays ml @1.83 and rl @2.45. You do 5 units/the ml odd (1.83) = 2.73. This means you bet 2.73 units of the 5 units on money line. If you have $10 units you'd bet $27.30 on ml. Now you take the remainder (5-2.73 = 2.27) and bet it on rl, so $22.70.
The way it works is that if toronto wins by two or more, you get a total payout of (27.3 * 1.83) + (22.7 * 2.45) = $105.57 and your total input was $50, meaning that you have odds of 2.11 (slightly better then bk has now). If toronto wins exactly by 1, it means that only your first bet hits (the ml) which is 27.3 * 1.83 = $50 so you break even as to what you put. First time really commenting so sorry about formatting and stuff gl